Did Jesus Exist? - The Historical Argument for Jesus of Nazareth by Bart Ehrman (read book .TXT) ๐
Read free book ยซDid Jesus Exist? - The Historical Argument for Jesus of Nazareth by Bart Ehrman (read book .TXT) ๐ยป - read online or download for free at americanlibrarybooks.com
- Author: Bart Ehrman
Read book online ยซDid Jesus Exist? - The Historical Argument for Jesus of Nazareth by Bart Ehrman (read book .TXT) ๐ยป. Author - Bart Ehrman
There is very little dispute that some of the Gospel stories originated in Aramaic and that therefore they go back to the earliest stages of the Christian movement in Palestine. This is clearly shown, as well, by a second kind of evidence. Some Gospel passages do not contain Aramaic words, but they make sense only when their Greek words and phrases are translated back into Aramaic. This means they originated as Aramaic traditions that only later came to be transmitted in Greek.
One of the clearest examples is in Mark 2:27โ28, where Jesus delivers a withering two-liner to silence his critics. His disciples have been walking through the grain fields on the Sabbath, and since they were hungry they started eating some of the grain. The Pharisees see this (the Pharisees seem to be everywhere in Mark) and protest that the disciples are breaking the Sabbath. For Jesus, though, as Mark portrays him, human needs (in this case hunger) take priority over strict interpretations about the Sabbath. And so he informs his opponents, โSabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath. Therefore the Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath.โ
That last line doesnโt really make sense in the context, for two reasons. For one thing, even if Jesus, who is the Son of Man in Markโs Gospel, is the Lord (master) of the Sabbath, what has that to do with his criticsโ objection? They are objecting not to what he has done but to what his disciples have done. Even more, the last line doesnโt follow at all from the first line. I sometimes tell my students that when they see the word therefore in a passage, they should ask, what is the therefore there for? The therefore in this case doesnโt make sense. Just because Sabbath was made for humans and not the other way around, what does that have to do with Jesus being the Lord of the Sabbath?
Both problems are solved once you translate the passage back into Aramaic. As it turns out, Aramaic uses the same word for man and for son of man. It is the word barnash. And so the two-liner originally said, โSabbath was made for barnash, not barnash for the Sabbath. Therefore barnash is lord of the Sabbath.โ Now the therefore makes sense. The reason that humans (barnash) are the lords of the Sabbath is because of what he just said: Sabbath was made for humans, not the other way around. Moreover, now the last line makes sense in the context of the story. The disciples (the barnash) are masters of the Sabbath, which was created for their sake.
Originally, then, this story circulated in Aramaic. When it came to be translated into Greek, the translator decided to make it not just about the disciples but also about Jesus. And so he translated barnash in two different ways, twice to refer to โhumansโ in general (โmanโ) and once to refer to Jesus in particular (โthe Son of Man),โ creating a problem in the Greek that was not there in the Aramaic. The story stems from an Aramaic-speaking community of Christians located in Palestine during the early years of the Jesus movement.
I might add that this business of translating the Greek of the Gospels back into Aramaic has other significant payoffs for those interested in knowing what Jesus really said and did, a matter I will address later in the book once Iโve established more fully that Jesus almost certainly existed. As it turns out, some sayings of Jesus cannot be translated into Aramaic. Jesus could not have said these things since he spoke Aramaic. Let me give one rather famous example.
In John 3 comes the well-known story of Jesusโs conversation with the rabbi Nicodemus. Jesus is in Jerusalem, and Nicodemus comes up to him and tells him that he knows he is a teacher from God. Jesus tells him: โUnless you are born anothen you will not be able to enter into the kingdom of God.โ I have left the key word here in Greek. Anothen has two meanings. It can mean โa second time,โ and it can mean โfrom above.โ And so this is the passage in which Jesus instructs his follower that he has to be โborn again.โ At least thatโs how Nicodemus understands the word because he is shocked and asks how he can possibly crawl back into his motherโs womb and be born a second time. But in fact Jesus does not mean โa second timeโ; he means โfrom above.โ This is what the word anothen means in the other instances it is used in Johnโs Gospel, and it is what Jesus means by it here, as he then corrects Nicodemus and launches into a lengthy explanation that a person needs to be born from the Spirit who comes from above (the upper realm) if he wants to enter into the kingdom of God.
This is a conversation, in other words, that is rooted in the double meaning of the key word anothen, which Nicodemus understands in one way but Jesus means in another. Without that double entendre, the conversation does not flow and does not quite make sense. But hereโs the key point. Even though the Greek word anothen has this double meaning, the double meaning cannot be replicated in Aramaic. The Aramaic word for โfrom aboveโ does not mean โa second time,โ and the word for โa second timeโ does not mean โfrom above.โ In other words, this conversation could not have been carried out in Aramaic. But Aramaic was the language Jesus spokeโand the language he certainly would have been speaking in Jerusalem with a leading Jewish rabbi (even if he were able to speak another language, which is doubtful). In other words, the conversation could not have happened as it is reported.
But other traditions in the Gospels certainly do go back to Aramaic originals. This is highly significant. Aramaic Jews in Jesusโs native land were telling stories about him well before
Comments (0)