Immortality or Resurrection (Updated) by William West (ereader with dictionary .txt) 📕

McCord says they can be and are sometimes wrong.
See "Lexicons Can Be Wrong" McCord, Guardian of Truth, Page 448, 1996]. In the early
translations, one Greek word would be translated into many English words [an example-apollumi
was translated into eight English words in the King James Version]. A Lexicon wrote later would
give all eight English words as the meaning of the one Greek word. Lexicons sometimes define a
Greek word more by the way that word is used in the English translations than that by the way it
was used in the Greek New Testament, if the English translations translate it 8 or 10 different
ways, the lexicons give 8 or 10 different meanings of the one Greek word. The question is, why
did the early translations use many words to translate one word? By being able to translate one
Greek word into many English words gives them the ability to make any verse not say something
they did not want it to say. One word, nehphesh, is rendered with about forty-four different
words in the King James Old Testament.
W. E. VINE'S EIGHTEEN WAYS "SPIRIT" IS USED: They are almost the same as
his "soul" - see above. Of the eighteen ways Vine says the word "spirit" is used in the
Bible, he says sixteen of them are not used with reference to an undying "immaterial,
invisible part of man" [A through R]. C and D are the only two of the eighteen different
ways he says spirit is used, which he used to prove a person is a two-fold being, and they
do not do it. None of the passages he used say anything about an immortality soul.
1. Being not of this earth, God, Christ, Holy Spirit, angels, and other spirits both
clean and unclean. [k] The Holy Spirit [m] Unclean spirits, demons. [n] Angels
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2. To man. W. E. Vine lists a number of ways that "spirit" applies to man. [a] The
wind [b] The breath [c] The immaterial, invisible part of man, Luke 8:55; Acts
7:59; 1 Corinthians 5:5; James 2:26. [d] The disembodied, or unclothed, or
naked, 2 Corinthians 5:3, 4; Luke 24:37-39; Hebrews 12:23; 1 Peter 4:6 [e] The
resurrection body [f] The sentient element in man, that by which he perceives,
reflect, feels, desires [g] Purpose, aim [h] The equivalent of the personal
pronoun, used for emphasis and effect [i] Character [j] Moral qualities and
activities. Bad, As of bondage, As of a slave, Stupor, and Timidity, Good, As of
adoption, liberty as of a son, Faith, Quietness, [l] 'The inward man,' an
expression used only of the believer, The new life [o] Divine gift for service [p]
By metonymy, those who claim to be depositories of these gifts [q] The
significance, as contrasted with the form, of words, or of a rite [r] A vision.
W. E. Vine's gives eight passages in [c] and [d] to prove a person has in immortal part.
[1]. HIS FIRST PASSAGE: Luke 8:55
"AND HER SPIRIT RETURNED."
W. E. Vine says pneuma (soul) is "the natural life of the body," Page 588. It means
her life returned. W. E. Vine said, "The spirit may be recognized as the life principle
bestowed on man by God, the soul as the resulting life constituted in the individual, the
body being the material organism animated by soul and spirit" Page 589. He points out
that man as he is now can have no life without the body. After the resurrection the saved
will have a new body. The lost are not said to put on a new glorious spiritual body (2
Thessalonians 4:23ff, 1 Corinthians 15:43), or to have immortality, which they must have
if they will live forever in torment. Pneuma-spirit is also translated "life" in Revelation
13:15. VINE MAKES A CLEAR DISTINCTION BETWEEN SOUL AND SPIRIT,
BUT SAYS BOTH ARE AN "IMMATERIAL, INVISIBLE PART OF MAN." Does
he think people have two "immaterial, invisible part(s)"? Is this proof that, as McCord
says, "Lexicons Can Be Wrong"? W. E. Vine also applied "A building from God, a
house not made with hands, eternal, in the heavens" [2 Corinthians 5:3-4] to both the
soul and the spirit, but he and many others believe the soul and the spirit is not the
same. Do they think we have two buildings from God, one for the soul, and one for
the spirit?
[2]. W. E. VINE'S SECOND PASSAGE
"RECEIVE MY SPIRIT" Acts 7:59
Also see Luke 23:46. If he were asking for his spirit to be received at the resurrection,
for this is when we will be received in Heaven, then where is his spirit before the
resurrection? For this to prove the spirit is alive from death unto the Resurrection, his
spirit would have to be received by God at death. Stephen was asking God to receive him
at the judgment. Those who teach we go to Abraham's bosom do not believe we are
caught up to Heaven immediately at death so why are they using this to prove what
happens to us at death when they do not believe God receives us into Heaven at the time
of our death? To make this teach we have an immortal soul, which does not die when the
body dies, [1] soul and spirit must be made to be the same thing [2] then contrary to their
belief about Abraham's bosom that no one will be in Heaven before the resurrection; they
send Stephen to Heaven at his death. Is it because there is no real proof, and scripture
must be misused to make it sound as though there is proof, and even misuse them in a
way that is contradictory to their own belief. We are not told that Stephen went to Heaven
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or to Abraham's bosom, but we are told clearly that he "fell asleep" [Acts 7:60]. Maybe
they think Stephen is asleep in Heaven or Abraham's bosom. If the real Stephen were the
spirit, then what was the "he" that "fell asleep" [Acts 7:60]? The "he" that fell asleep is
Stephen, not just an earthly body that will never be in Heaven.
Stephen said, "LAY NOT THIS SIN TO THEIR CHARGE" [Acts 7:60]. The book of
Job was inspired, but the speeches of his three friends were not inspired, and much in
their speeches is not true. See "Job" By Homer Hailey and "Guide to Bible Study" by J.
W. McGarvey. Was Stephen speaking by inspiration, or was Luke only inspired to write
what Stephen said, just as the writer of Job was inspired to write the uninspired speeches
of Job's friends even when it is said that they spoke not the truth? The question is "what
did he ask God to do, and when was he asking God to do it"? "Lord, lay not this sin to
their charge?" [Acts 7:60]. This shows he had love even to those who were doing him
harm as he should, but what he was asking could not be unless they believed, repented,
and were baptized. There is no other way that God could not lay this sin to their charge,
or the death of Christ would not have been needed. Therefore, God could not do what
Stephen was asking. Stephen was not speaking by inspiration when he said this, for if he
were, he would not have been inspired to ask God to do something He could not do.
Christ said, "Father, into your hands I commit My spirit: and having said this, He
breathed His last" [Luke 23:46]. ISAIAH 53:12 IN THE KING JAMES VERSION
"BECAUSE HE HAS POURED OUT HIS SOUL UNTO DEATH," IS "BECAUSE HE
POURED OUT HIMSELF TO DEATH" IN THE NEW AMERICAN STANDARD
VERSION, AND "BECAUSE HE POURED OUT HIS LIFE UNTO DEATH" IN THE
NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION. CHRIST GAVE HIS LIFE FOR US, NOT A NO
SUBSTANCE SOMETHING THAT ACCORDING TO TODAY'S THEOLOGY
COULD NOT DIE AND WAS ALIVE IN "HELL" IN THE THREE DAYS THAT HIS
BODY WAS IN THE GRAVE. If Christ did not really give up His life, if He were as
much alive as He was before He came to earth there was no resurrection. He did not die
for us. We are still in our sins with no hope. "FOR YOU WILL NOT ABANDON MY
SOUL TO SHEOL" [Psalms 16:10]. "Because you will not abandon me to the GRAVE"
New International Version is quoted in the New Testament, "BECAUSE YOU WILL NOT
LEAVE MY SOUL UNTO HADES" [Acts 2:27 and 31]. "In hell" in the King James
Version. Christ gave His life for our sins. Sheol is the grave. He died our death and went
to the grave and was raised from the grave by the Father. He was not abandon to the
grave.
[3]. W. E. VINE'S PASSAGE THIRD PASSAGE
"Supposed that they beheld a spirit"
The third proof that Vine used to prove a person now has an "immaterial, invisible
part of man" is Luke 24:37-39,"Supposed that they beheld a spirit." This is what they
[as men] thought based on their fear, and was not based on inspiration. The two parallel
account of this says phantom [Matthew 14:26; Mark 6:49]. Strong [Page 1006] says this
word is not pneuma [spirit] #4151, but "phantasma" #5326 [also #5324]; "A [mere]
show...i.e. specter [a hunting vision]" When Christ walked on the water is the one time
this word (plantasma) is used in the Bible, and is translated "ghost" in the American
Standard Version and most others. It is translated "a phantom" by Marshall and in the
"Christian Bible." The "Englishman Greek Concordance," Page 783 says, "Lit. A
phantom." These disciples seem to have believed they were seeing a ghost or phantom;
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and like these disciples, some today believe in ghosts, spooks, haunted houses, and such
things. This maybe the only time Vine’s thin air with no substance ghost or spirit is in the
New Testament, and then it was only what these disciples thought they were seeing, and
not what they did see. Spirits, God, Christ, Angels have a body, and mankind after
judgment will have a body, and are more than just thin air; but not two bodies with two
opposite natures both at the same time. THE USE OF THIS PASSAGE TO PROVE A
PERSON HAS AN IMMORTAL SOUL MAKES THE PROOF BE BASED ON A LIE,
ON WHAT THE DISCIPLES THOUGHT THEY WERE SEEING, NOT ON WHAT
THEY DID SEE. Then what they thought they were seeing, a phantasm or ghost must be
changed to say they were seeing "The immaterial, invisible part of man" which W. E.
Vine does not seem to know whether it was an invisible "soul" or an invisible "spirit"
they were seeing, but it was not very invisible for they were seeing it. Christ said to
them that He was not a spirit, not a phantom or ghost that has no body that they thought
He was, that He was flesh and blood. WHY DID VINE USE AN UNINSPIRED
STATEMENT, MADE BY MEN IN FEAR, WHO WAS NOT SEEING WHAT THEY
THOUGHT THEY WERE SEEING, TO PROVE SOMETHING TO BE A DIVINE
TRUTH? This passage says absolutely nothing about a person having an immortal
invisible soul that he used it to prove. Does he think they were inspired to believe a lie
and that this lie becomes truth, but only after he changes this "phantom" to a "soul"? And
that this "immaterial, invisible part of man" is just air, and it has no kind of substance or
no body of any kind; and that a spiritual body is no body at all, with just nothing to it?
Yet, V. w. Vine said these disciples thought they were seeing something that he says is
invisible, therefore, could not be seen. Although what they were seeing was not invisible,
he used it to prove a person has an invisible part in him. MOST WHO BELIEVE A
PERSON HAS AN